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Question #1: Matthew 19:4-6 says that "they two will be one flesh. Therefore they are no more two, but one flesh." Not three or four. And the same thing is in Genesis 2.
Let me quote the complete Scriptural references before responding: Genesis 2:24: "For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they shall become one flesh." Matthew 19:4-6: "And He answering, said to them, "Did you not read that He who made them at the beginning made them male and female, and said, 'For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother, and they shall become one flesh'? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what Elohim has joined together, let man not separate.'" Mark 10:6-9: "However, from the beginning of creation, Elohim 'made them male and female'. 'For this cause a man shall leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife, and they shall become one flesh', so that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what Elohim has joined together, let man not separate." These parallel verses from Matthew and Mark are a reference back to Genesis 2 concerning the sexual aspect of marriage. In this first recorded marriage in Scripture, the pattern is that husband and wife become one flesh in sexual intercourse. These words were written by Moses, who not only recorded Genesis but also the Torah. Moses, who was expected to conform to Elohim's highest standard, did not see a contradiction between Polygyny and the "one flesh" reference of Eden. In fact, Moses himself had two wives. In any event, these verses are discussing divorce and have nothing to do with polygyny. I'm assuming your reference is whether the statement "the two shall become one flesh" means that the man can be "one flesh" with only one woman. Let's see what the New Testament says on this matter: 1 Corinthians 6:15-17: "Do you not know that your bodies are members of Messiah? Shall I then take the members of Messiah and make them members of a whore? Let it not be! Or do you not know that he who is joined to a whore is one body? For He says, "The two shall become one flesh." And he who is joined to the Master is one spirit." This verse clearly demonstrates that a man can become "one flesh" with a whore, and there is no distinction of whether this man happens to already have a wife. So if a married man lays with a whore, is he not "one flesh" with the whore as well as "one flesh" with his wife? One could certainly do this while being married to another. For that matter, if two different men were to lay with the whore, wouldn't they both become "one flesh" with the whore? Or are the Scriptures not to be believed? These verses simply state a physical and spiritual fact: a man and a woman become "one flesh" when they are joined together in the act of sexual intercourse. |
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